Let A= {−1,0,1,2}, B={−4,−2,0,2} and f,g: A→B be functions defined by \(f(x)=x^2-x, \,x\in A\, and \,g(x)=2\mid\frac{ x-1}{2}\mid-1,x\in A.\). Are f and g equal? Justify your answer. (Hint: One may note that two function \(f:A\to B \,and \: g:A\to B\) such that \(f(a)=g(a) \forall \,a \in\,A,\) are called equal functions).