Question:

Value of $\displaystyle\sum_{ k =1}^{6}\left(\frac{2 k \pi}{7}\right)- i \cos \left(\frac{2 k \pi}{7}\right)$ is equal to.

Updated On: Jun 2, 2023
  • -1
  • 1
  • 0
  • none of these
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The Correct Option is D

Solution and Explanation

$x =\displaystyle\sum_{ k =1}^{6} \sin \left(\frac{2 k \pi}{7}\right)- i \cos \left(\frac{2 k \pi}{7}\right)$ $x =\frac{1}{ i } \displaystyle\sum_{ k =1}^{6} i \sin \left(\frac{2 k \pi}{7}\right)- i ^{2} \cos \left(\frac{2 k \pi}{7}\right) $ $x =\frac{1}{ i }\displaystyle \sum_{ k =1}^{6} \cos \left(\frac{2 k \pi}{7}\right)+ i \sin \left(\frac{2 k \pi}{7}\right)$ $\left[\because i ^{2}=-1\right]$ Now, $\cos \theta+i \sin \theta=e^{i \theta}$ $\therefore x =\frac{1}{ i }\displaystyle \sum_{ k =1}^{6} e ^{ i }\left[\frac{2 k \pi}{7}\right]$ $=\frac{1}{ i } e ^{ i } \frac{2 k \pi}{7}[1+2+3+4+5+6]$ $=\frac{1}{ i } e ^{ i } \frac{2 k \pi}{7} \times 21$ $=\frac{1}{ i } e ^{ i 6 \pi}$ $=\frac{1}{ i }[\cos 6 \pi+ i \sin 6 \pi]$ $=\frac{1}{ i }(1+0)$ $=\frac{1}{ i }=\frac{1}{ i } \times \frac{ i }{ i }$ $=\frac{ i }{ i ^{2}}=- i$
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Concepts Used:

Complex Number

A Complex Number is written in the form

a + ib

where,

  • “a” is a real number
  • “b” is an imaginary number

The Complex Number consists of a symbol “i” which satisfies the condition i^2 = −1. Complex Numbers are mentioned as the extension of one-dimensional number lines. In a complex plane, a Complex Number indicated as a + bi is usually represented in the form of the point (a, b). We have to pay attention that a Complex Number with absolutely no real part, such as – i, -5i, etc, is called purely imaginary. Also, a Complex Number with perfectly no imaginary part is known as a real number.