Question:
Let A=\(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & \frac{1}{51} \\ 0 & 1\end{bmatrix}\). If B=\(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 \\ -1 & -1\end{bmatrix}\)A \(\begin{bmatrix} -1 & -2 \\ 1 & 1\end{bmatrix}\), then the sum of all the elements of the matrix \(\sum^{50}_{n=1}B^n\) is equal to
Let A=\(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & \frac{1}{51} \\ 0 & 1\end{bmatrix}\). If B=\(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 \\ -1 & -1\end{bmatrix}\)A \(\begin{bmatrix} -1 & -2 \\ 1 & 1\end{bmatrix}\), then the sum of all the elements of the matrix \(\sum^{50}_{n=1}B^n\) is equal to
Updated On: Apr 23, 2024
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- 125
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The Correct Option is C
Solution and Explanation
The correct option is(C): 100
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