The Supreme Court explicitly rejected the Governor’s power to an absolute or “pocket” veto, which allows for bills to be indefinitely delayed. If a Governor withholds assent to a bill, they are constitutionally obligated to return it to the State Assembly for reconsideration, according to the proviso in Article 200 of the Constitution. If the State Assembly re-enacts a bill after it has been returned by the Governor, the Governor has no choice but to give assent to it and cannot withhold it for a second time.
The Court held that indefinitely delaying or remaining silent on bills is unconstitutional and that Governors must act “as soon as possible” on bills. The judgment expanded the scope of judicial review by setting timelines for the Governor’s actions on bills, allowing state governments to approach courts if these timelines are breached. In the case of Tamil Nadu, the Court used its powers under Article 142 to “deem assent” on the long-pending bills, which had the effect of making any subsequent decision by the President on those bills void. (276 words)
[Extracted with edits & revisions from The Hindu, dated 8th April 2025]
The Legislative Assembly of State X passes a controversial bill and sends it to the Governor for assent. The Governor, strongly disagreeing with the bill's provisions, decides to neither give assent nor return the bill, hoping it will be forgotten over time. Which of the following statements accurately describes the legal position of the Governor's action?
Show Hint
- The Governor's action is a legitimate exercise of a "pocket veto", allowing for indefinite delay of bills
- The Governor's inaction is unconstitutional, as the Supreme Court has explicitly rejected the power to an absolute or "pocket" veto, and they are obligated to return the bill "as soon as possible" if assent is withheld
- The Governor is within their rights to delay the bill indefinitely as long as they do not explicitly reject it, reflecting the true spirit of gubernatorial discretion
- The bill will automatically lapse after six months of gubernatorial inaction, making the delay a de facto rejection
The Correct Option is B
Solution and Explanation
Governor Y receives a bill from the State Assembly and, after careful consideration, decides to withhold assent, promptly returning it with a message for reconsideration. The State Assembly then re-enacts the bill without any change and sends it back to Governor Y. What is the constitutional obligation of Governor Y at this point?
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- Governor Y has no choice but to give assent to the re-enacted bill, as the Supreme Court has ruled that the Governor cannot withhold assent for a second time
- Governor Y can again withhold assent if they continue to disagree with the bill's content, sending it back for further reconsideration
- Governor Y can refer the bill to the President of India for a final decision, exercising a higher discretionary power
- Governor Y can dissolve the State Assembly for consistently passing erroneous bills
The Correct Option is A
Solution and Explanation
After the Supreme Court's judgment in {State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu (2025), a State Governor holds a bill for eight months without taking any action—neither assenting nor returning it. The State Government believes that this delay is unconstitutional. Based on the precedent set by the judgment, what recourse is available to the State Government?}
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- The State Government must wait for a full year before any action can be taken, as gubernatorial delays are typically permitted for this duration
- The bill automatically lapses after six months of inaction, making any further action by the State Government unnecessary
- The State Government's only recourse is to re-enact the bill, which would then compel the Governor to act
- The State Government can approach the courts, as the judgment had prescribed timelines for the Governor's actions on bills since indefinite delay was construed unconstitutional
The Correct Option is D
Solution and Explanation
In a situation mirroring the Tamil Nadu case, a Supreme Court bench is reviewing several instances where a particular Governor has indefinitely delayed assent on multiple bills passed by the State Assembly, despite Constitutional obligations. If the Supreme Court decides to follow the precedent established in {State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu (2025) regarding pending bills, what would be a likely outcome for these delayed bills?}
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- The Supreme Court would order the Governor to explicitly reject all the delayed bills
- The Supreme Court would direct the State Assembly to conduct a public referendum on each delayed bill
- The Supreme Court could deem assent on the pending bills, establishing a critical precedent for judicial review of gubernatorial powers in such cases, as it did in the Tamil Nadu case
- The Supreme Court would advise the Governor to seek legal counsel and then re-evaluate each bill individually without a set timeline
The Correct Option is C
Solution and Explanation
A newly appointed Governor publicly declares that he intends to use his discretion to permanently halt any legislation he deems inappropriate, by simply not acting on the bills, citing an inherent gubernatorial power. How does this declaration align with the constitutional interpretation provided by the Supreme Court of India?
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- The Governor's declaration is consistent with the broad discretionary powers traditionally afforded to Governors, allowing them significant influence over state legislation
- The Governor's declaration is valid only for non-money bills, as money bills have different Constitutional protocols
- The Governor's declaration is partially valid, as indefinite delay is permissible only if the State Assembly is not in session
- The Governor's declaration is unconstitutional; the Supreme Court explicitly rejected the Governor's power to an absolute or "pocket" veto
The Correct Option is D
Solution and Explanation
What are the three primary courses of action for a Governor when a Bill is enacted by the State Assembly and sent to him/her for assent? Which option correctly lists these three courses?
Show Hint
- (i) Give assent, (ii) Veto absolutely, or (iii) Refer to the Supreme Court
- (i) Give assent, (ii) Withhold assent (allowing the Bill to fail, unless the proviso is followed), or (iii) Recommend amendments
- (i) Give assent, (ii) Withhold assent (with the option to return for reconsideration), or (iii) Reserve for the consideration of the President
- (i) Give assent, (ii) Return for reconsideration, or (iii) Refer to the Union Government
The Correct Option is C
Solution and Explanation
Top Questions on Judiciary
- The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India is inspired from which country?
- Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements:
Statements:
1. The National Green Tribunal is a Judicial body adjudicating environmental cases in the country
2. The National Green Tribunal has five Zones: North, Central, East, West and South - Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements: Statements:
1. There is absolutely no charge for getting free legal aid through NALSA in India
2. One can choose a lawyer, from the panel of lawyers, of his or her choice while availing free legal aid through NALSA - The acronym NALSA stands for
- Which is not true in respect of Lok Adalat?
Questions Asked in CLAT exam
- In a language laboratory, students were given an interesting puzzle involving the word "ELECTROCARDIOGRAPH." The teacher explained that such exercises not only test logical skills but also sharpen attention to detail. According to the challenge, the word had to undergo a series of transformations. First, the class was asked to take the first half of the letters, reverse their order and make the arrangement of letters look quite different from the original. Next, the students were told to identify the last but one letter of the original word and place it at the very beginning, a step that changed the opening appearance of the sequence completely. Finally, as a finishing touch, they had to add the letter 'S' at the end. Following these steps carefully would lead them to the correct transformed word, and only those who adhered to each condition in the exact order could solve the puzzle successfully. (150 words)
- CLAT - 2026
- Coding Decoding
On the night of October 12th, the "Sunburst Medallion" was stolen from the highly secured display case in the city museum. The theft occurred sometime between the museum closing at 10:00 PM and the night guard, Mr. Hemant, completing his final round at 1:00 AM. Three primary suspects were identified, all of whom had recently been dismissed from their museum positions: Anjali, the former curator; Bharat, the former security expert; and Chitra, the former exhibits designer.
Here are the established facts and their alibis:
- The security system logs show that the display case was opened using a specific five-digit code, which only Anjali and the museum director (who was out of the country) knew.
- Bharat's alibi is that he was at a distant relative's birthday party from 8:00 PM to 1:30 AM. Multiple independent witnesses confirmed his presence throughout the entire period.
- Chitra's alibi is that she was working late at a downtown graphic design studio. A time-stamped security camera from the studio's entrance shows her entering at 7:00 PM and exiting at 11:45 PM. The studio is a 20-minute drive from the museum.
- Mr. Hemant, the night guard, stated he checked the medallion at 10:30 PM, and it was still there.
Further investigation revealed that a small, distinctive silver button was found near the display case. Anjali is known to frequently wear a coat with similar unique silver buttons. The security expert, Bharat, had previously boasted that he could remotely disable a certain type of magnetic lock—the same type used on the medallion's case—without needing the code, though the log suggests the code was used. (269 words)
- CLAT - 2026
- Assertion and Reason
In a small town lived a close-knit family where every relation could be expressed through simple symbols. For instance, when they said \( A \times B \), it meant \( A \) is the father of \( B \), while \( A \div B \) meant \( A \) is the mother of \( B \). The younger ones were often introduced with \( A + B \), meaning \( A \) was the daughter of \( B \), and the bond of brotherhood was shown by \( A - B \) (A is brother of B).
One day, the children in the family turned these symbols into a playful code. Instead of introducing their parents and siblings in words, they spoke only in symbols. “Look,” giggled little Meena, “\( M + N \div O \)!” Everyone laughed, because they knew it meant Meena was the daughter of \( N \), and \( N \) was the mother of \( O \), making her \( O \)’s sister. What started as a code soon became a family game, making the bonds of father, mother, daughter, and brother not just relations, but symbols of love and togetherness. (165 words)
- CLAT - 2026
- Blood Relations
Four teams – Red (R), Blue (B), Green (G), and Yellow (Y) – are competing in the final four rounds of the Inter-School Science Olympiad, labeled Round A, Round B, Round C, and Round D. Each round consists of one match between two teams, and every team plays exactly two matches. No team plays the same opponent more than once.
The final schedule must adhere to the following rules:
- Rule 1 (Consecutive Play): The Green team (G) must play their two matches in consecutive rounds.
- Rule 2 (Fixed Appearance): The Yellow team (Y) must play in Round B.
- Rule 3 (Positional Constraint): The Red team (R) must play against the Blue team (B) in a round that is immediately before a round in which neither R nor B is playing.
- Rule 4 (Timing): The Blue team's (B) first match must occur in an earlier round than the Green team's (G) first match.
- Rule 5 (Opponent Link): The team that plays against the Red team (R) in the round that is not against the Blue team (B), is the same team that plays in Round D.
(193 words)
- CLAT - 2026
- Seating Arrangement
Health insurance plays a vital role in ensuring financial protection and access to quality healthcare. In India, however, the extent and nature of health insurance coverage vary significantly between urban and rural areas. While urban populations often have better access to organized insurance schemes, employer-provided coverage, and awareness about health policies, rural populations face challenges such as limited outreach of insurance schemes, inadequate infrastructure, and lower awareness levels. This urban-rural divide in health insurance coverage highlights the broader issue of healthcare inequality, making it essential to analyze the factors contributing to this gap and explore strategies for more inclusive health protection. A state-level health survey was conducted.
The survey covered 1,80,000 adults across urban and rural areas. Urban residents formed 55% of the sample (that is, 99,000 people) while rural residents made up 45% (that is, 81,000 people). In each area, coverage was classified under four heads – Public schemes, Private insurance, Employer-provided coverage, and Uninsured. In urban areas, Public coverage accounted for 28% of the urban population, Private for 22%, Employer for 18%, and the remaining 32% were Uninsured. In rural areas, where formal coverage is generally lower, Public coverage stood at 35%, Private at 10%, Employer at 8%, while 47% were Uninsured.
For this survey, “Insured” includes everyone covered by Public + Private + Employer schemes, and “Uninsured” indicates those with no coverage at all. Officials noted that public schemes remain the backbone of rural coverage, while employer and private plans are relatively more prevalent in urban centres. (250 words)
- CLAT - 2026
- Ratio and Proportion