Question:

Let \( X \) be a Poisson random variable with mean \( \frac{1}{2} \). Then \( E((X + 1)!) \) equals

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For Poisson random variables, the expected value of functions of \( X \) can often be computed by using standard results for sums involving \( e^{-\lambda} \).
Updated On: Dec 12, 2025
  • \( 2e^{-\frac{1}{2}} \)
  • \( 4e^{-\frac{1}{2}} \)
  • \( 4e^{-1} \)
  • \( 2e^{-1} \)
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The Correct Option is B

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Recall the Poisson distribution.
For a Poisson distribution with mean \( \lambda \), the probability mass function is given by: \[ P(X = k) = \frac{\lambda^k e^{-\lambda}}{k!}, k = 0, 1, 2, \dots \] Here, \( \lambda = \frac{1}{2} \).

Step 2: Use the definition of expected value.
The expected value of \( (X + 1)! \) is: \[ E((X + 1)!) = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} (k + 1)! \frac{\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^k e^{-\frac{1}{2}}}{k!}. \] Simplifying the terms: \[ E((X + 1)!) = e^{-\frac{1}{2}} \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} (k + 1) \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)^k. \] This sum is a standard result for Poisson-distributed random variables.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (B) \( 4e^{-\frac{1}{2}} \).

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