Question:

Let \( \{a_n\}_{n \geq 1} \) be a sequence of real numbers such that \[ a_n = \frac{1 + 3 + 5 + \dots + (2n - 1)}{n!}, n \geq 1. \] Then \( \sum_{n \geq 1} a_n \) converges to ................

Show Hint

For series with factorials in the denominator, use the ratio test to determine convergence. Factorials grow very fast, which usually leads to convergence.
Updated On: Dec 16, 2025
Hide Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

Correct Answer: 5.4 - 5.5

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Simplify the numerator

The sum of the first (n) odd numbers is
\[1+3+5+\cdots+(2n-1)=n^2.\]
Hence
\[a_n=\frac{n^2}{n!}.\]

Step 2: Rewrite \(n^2\)

\[n^2=n(n-1)+n.\]
Thus
\[\frac{n^2}{n!} =\frac{n(n-1)}{n!}+\frac{n}{n!} =\frac{1}{(n-2)!}+\frac{1}{(n-1)!}.\]

Step 3: Sum the series

\[\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n =\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{(n-2)!} +\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{(n-1)!}.\]

Adjust indices:

For the first sum, terms start effectively from \(n=2\):
\[\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{(n-2)!} =\sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{1}{k!} =e.\]

For the second sum:
\[\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{(n-1)!} =\sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{1}{k!} =e.\]

Therefore,
\[\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n = e+e = 2e.\]

Final answer

\[\boxed{\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n = 2e \approx 5.436}\]

Was this answer helpful?
0
0

Questions Asked in IIT JAM MS exam

View More Questions