Question:

Evaluate the integral: $ \int_0^\pi \frac{\tan x}{\cos x} \, dx = \int_0^\pi \frac{\sin x}{\cos^2 x} \, dx $

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When dealing with integrals involving trigonometric identities, substitution can often help simplify the problem and make it more straightforward to solve. Keep an eye on standard identities, such as \( \tan x = \frac{\sin x}{\cos x} \), to facilitate the calculation.
Updated On: Apr 28, 2025
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The Correct Option is A

Solution and Explanation

We are given the integral: \[ \int_0^\pi \frac{\tan x}{\cos x} \, dx = \int_0^\pi \frac{\sin x}{\cos^2 x} \, dx \] First, observe that: \[ \tan x = \frac{\sin x}{\cos x} \] So, the original integral becomes: \[ \int_0^\pi \frac{\sin x}{\cos^2 x} \, dx \] Now, we need to evaluate this integral. To simplify this, we perform the substitution: \[ u = \cos x, \quad \frac{du}{dx} = -\sin x \]
Thus, the integral becomes: \[ \int_{u(0)}^{u(\pi)} \frac{-1}{u^2} \, du \] At the limits \( x = 0 \) and \( x = \pi \), we know that: - \( \cos 0 = 1 \) - \( \cos \pi = -1 \) Therefore, the integral becomes: \[ \int_1^{-1} \frac{-1}{u^2} \, du \] This simplifies to: \[ - \left[ \frac{1}{u} \right]_1^{-1} = - \left( \frac{1}{-1} - \frac{1}{1} \right) = -(-1 - 1) = 2 \] Hence, the answer is \( 2 \).
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