List of top Questions asked in AILET BALLB (Hons.)

Find the one that does not belong to the group.

Statement - Computer advertisements now fill magazine pages but the real computer revolution in India is taking place quietly and is a likely organisation of Government.
Conclusion I - Both the Central and State Government are computerizing rapidly.
Conclusion II -The Government does not fill the magazine pages with its computer advertisements.
Following question is given a statement followed by two conclusions.

If in a certain code language 'TEMPERATURE' is written as 'BZQDYXVBNXZ', then how will 'RAMP' be written in that language?

In a certain coding system, 'JUNE' is written as 'PQRS' and 'AUGUST' is written as 'WQFQMN'. How will 'GUEST' be written in that coding language?

Statement The use of non-conventional sources of energy will eliminate the energy crisis in the world.
Conclusion I - Modern technology is gradually replacing the conventional source of energy.
Conclusion II - The excessive exploitation of environment has led to the depletion of conventional source of energy.
Following question is given a statement followed by two conclusions.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding preventive detention?
I. National Security Act as well as Article 22, Constitution of India provide for preventive detention in certain cases
II. Maximum duration in case of preventive detention can be till 12 months
III. In case of preventive detention, accused has the right to be informed about the grounds of arrest at the time of arrest.
IV. In case of preventive detention, accused has no right to be represented by a lawyer.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Citizenship (Amendment) Act 2019?
I. The Act does not apply to tribal areas of Tripura, Mizoram, Assam and Meghalaya but apply to all other states and UTs in India.
II. The Act provides that that no order of cancellation of registration shall be passed unless the Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.
III. The Act increases the period of naturalisation for such group of persons from six years to eight years.
IV. The Act applies to those who were "forced or compelled to seek shelter in India due to persecution on the ground of religion". It aims to protect such people from proceedings of illegal migration.

Which of the following countries have abolished flogging as a form of punishment in April 2020?

Which of the following countries joined the International Criminal Court (ICC) in 2019?

The Citizenship (Amendment) Act grants citizenship to the Hindus, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhist, Jains and Parsis - from_______who had arrived in India before______

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020?
I. The Ordinance seeks to increase competition in the agriculture sector and enhance farmers' income.
II. The Ordinance requires that imposition of any stock limit on certain specified items must be based on price rise.
III. The provisions of the Ordinance regarding the regulation of food items and the imposition of stock limits will apply to any government order relating to the Public Distribution System or the Targeted Public Distribution System.
IV. Recently, sanitizers, masks and oxygen cylinders are included under the Act till June 30, 2020.

Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Adaptation of State Laws) Second Order 2020 under J&K Civil Services (Decentralization and Recruitment) Act provides for which of the following:
I. Anyone who has lived in the Union Territory of J&K for at least 10 years is a domicile.
II. Anyone who has studied there for at least seven years and appeared in Class X or Class XII examinations in any school in the region is a domicile.
III. Anyone who is registered as a migrant by the Relief and Rehabilitation Commissioner (Migrants) in the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir is a domicile.
IV. A domicile of the UT shall be eligible for appointment to any post with a pay scale of not more than Level-4 under the UT or any local authority within the territory.

Which of the following statements regarding Anti-defection Law is/are incorrect?
I. Grounds of disqualification on ground of defection are provided in the 10th Schedule to the Constitution.
II. If 1/3 of the members of the political party defect from it than it is not defection.
III. Decision of the Speaker regarding disqualification of a member under Anti- Defection Law cannot be challenged in a court of law.
IV.A legislator is deemed to have defected if he disobeys the directives of the party leadership on a vote.

Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 provides for which of the following powers to prevent the spread of an epidemic disease?
I. Inspection of person
II. detention of persons
III. penalties for disobeying provisions of the Act under Section 188, 269 & 271 Indian Penal Code
IV. legal protection of implementing officers

Recently, the Supreme Court of India has held that women officers are also entitled to Permanent Commission in______

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendments Act?

In February 2020, the Supreme Court has held that reservations in promotion, in government jobs, is not a fundamental right and refused to give directions to provide reservations to the government of which of the following States?

Which of the following States have passed a Bill providing for life imprisonment and fine up to INR 5 Lakhs against accused in case of mob lynching leading to death of the victim?

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Delimitation Commission?
I. It determines the number and boundaries of constituencies to make population of all constituencies nearly equal.
II. The orders of Delimitation Commission have the force of law and can be challenged in a court of law.
III.Constitution of India has put a freeze on fresh delimitation until 2025.
IV.The constitution has also capped the number of Lok Shaba & Rajya Sabha seats to a maximum of 550 & 250 respectively

Legal Principles:
1. A contract can become void when: It is unfairly one-sided; it goes against public policy; its subject matter is illegal; it is impossible to perform; it unfairly restricts one side's actions (such as the right to work); one of the parties is not legally competent to enter into a binding contract.
2. A contract is void as against public policy if: (1) it is a contract by the defendant to pay the plaintiff for inducing a public official to act in a certain manner; (2) it is a contract to do an illegal act; or (3) it is a contract that contemplates collusive bidding on a public contract.
Facts: BR Industries, a company manufacturing drills, machine parts and components thereof and a purchaser of subcontract work from other suppliers, won the bid from the HLK Company to supply certain parts to it at a specified price. BR industries then contracted with SU Co. to supply the parts under the contract for a much lower price. BR Industries then intended to keep the difference between the amount it billed the HLK Company and the amount SU Co. charged for the parts. BR Industries initiated an action for breach of contract when SU Co. failed to complete the order. In its defense, SU Co. asserts that the contract is void as against public policy because Defendant turned a profit of 84.09% on anvils, 39.13% on holder primers and 68.33% on plunger supports. Did plaintiff receive too much compensation deeming it unconscionable and against public policy?

Legal Principles:
1. Offer is a proposal made by one person to another to do an act or abstain from doing it. The person who makes the offer is known as the promisor or offeror and the person to whom an offer is made is known as the promisee or the offeree.
2. A contract comes into being by the acceptance of an offer. When the person to whom the offer is made signifies his consent thereto, the proposal is said to be accepted and the parties are at consensus ad idem regarding the terms of the agreement.
Facts: In Dec. 2019, a convicted murderer who was sentenced to death escaped from the custody of Ramesh, a prison official. Ramesh later offered a reward of INR 50,000 to anyone who captured the fugitive and returned him to the authorities. In Jan. 2020, without knowledge or notice of the reward, Sunil captured the fugitive and took him to Ramesh's jail house. Ramesh refused Sunil's demands for the reward money. Sunil filed a case against Ramesh to recover the reward. Ramesh alleges that there is no contract between Ramesh and Sunil.

The Enemy Property Act applies to the property of which of the following?

In September 2019, High Court of______has held that the right to have access to the internet is part of fundamental right to education and right to privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.

The strength of Judges in Supreme Court of India has been increased from 31 to______

Legal principle: A contract may, in some circumstances, be discharged by a breach of contract. Where there exists a breach of condition this will enable the innocent party the right to repudiate the contract (bring the contract to an end) in addition to claiming damages.
Facts: In April, Sagar Tour & Travels agreed to employ Hiten as his courier for three months from 1 June 2020, to go on a trip around the European continent. On 11 May, Sagar Tour & Travels wrote to say that Hiten was no longer needed. On 22 May, Hiten sued Sagar Tour & Travels for breach of contract. Sagar Tour & Travels argued that Hiten was still under an obligation to stay ready and willing to perform till the day when performance was due, and therefore could commence no action before June 1, 2020.