We are given the integral \( \int \frac{\cos(\tan x)}{\cos^2 x} \, dx \) and are asked to find the solution.
We can solve this by using substitution. Let:
\( u = \tan x \),
so that \( du = \sec^2 x \, dx \).
Now, rewrite the integral in terms of \( u \):
\( \int \frac{\cos(\tan x)}{\cos^2 x} \, dx = \int \cos(u) \cdot \frac{du}{\cos^2 x} \).
Since \( \sec^2 x = 1/\cos^2 x \), this becomes:
\( \int \cos(u) \cdot \sec^2 x \, du \),
which simplifies to:
\( \int \cos(u) \, du \).
The integral of \( \cos(u) \) is \( \sin(u) \), so we have:
\( \sin(\tan x) + C \).
The correct answer is \( \sin(\tan x) + C \).
Draw a rough sketch for the curve $y = 2 + |x + 1|$. Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the curve $y = 2 + |x + 1|$, $x = -4$, $x = 3$, and $y = 0$.
If the function \[ f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{2}{x} \left( \sin(k_1 + 1)x + \sin(k_2 -1)x \right), & x<0 \\ 4, & x = 0 \\ \frac{2}{x} \log_e \left( \frac{2 + k_1 x}{2 + k_2 x} \right), & x>0 \end{cases} \] is continuous at \( x = 0 \), then \( k_1^2 + k_2^2 \) is equal to: