Step 1: Translate "for all primes."
The statement must hold for every choice of primes \(p_1, p_2\) (they could be equal, e.g., both \(2\), or distinct).
Step 2: Test universality of each option.
Option (A): If one prime is \(2\) and the other is \(3\), then \(p_1+p_2=5\) which is prime \(\Rightarrow\) (A) is false.
Option (C): With \(p_1=2, p_2=3\), we get \(2+3+1=6\), not prime \(\Rightarrow\) (C) is false.
Option (D): Take \(p_1=3, p_2=5\): \(p_1p_2+1=16\), not prime \(\Rightarrow\) (D) is false (a single counterexample kills universality).
Step 3: Prove (B) is always true.
For primes \(p_1,p_2 > 1\), the product \(p_1p_2\) has at least the two nontrivial divisors \(p_1\) and \(p_2\), with \(1 < p_1\leq p_1p_2\) and \(1 < p_2\leq p_1p_2\). Hence \(p_1p_2\) has more than two positive divisors \(\Rightarrow\) it is composite, never prime. Therefore, (B) holds for all primes.
\[ \boxed{\text{(B) is the only universally true statement.}} \]
The largest $ n \in \mathbb{N} $ such that $ 3^n $ divides 50! is: