Question:

Let f : X → Y be an invertible function. Show that the inverse of f-1 is f, i.e., (f-1)-1 = f.

Updated On: Aug 19, 2023
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Solution and Explanation

Let f : X → Y be an invertible function.
Then, there exists a function g: Y → X such that gof = IX and fog = IY
Here, f-1 = g.
Now, gof = IX and fog = IY
f-1 of = IX and fof -1= IY
Hence, f-1 : Y → X is invertible and f is the inverse of f-1 
i.e., (f-1)-1 = f

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