The function \( f \) is continuous on \( [a, b] \), differentiable on \( (a, b) \), and vanishes at both endpoints, i.e., \( f(a) = f(b) = 0 \).
This is a classic situation for applying the Rolle's Theorem, which states:
If a function is continuous on \( [a, b] \), differentiable on \( (a, b) \), and \( f(a) = f(b) \), then there exists at least one point \( c \in (a, b) \) such that: \[ f'(c) = 0 \]
But the question is not asking whether \( f'(c) = 0 \), rather whether \( f'(c) = f(c) \) holds for some \( c \in (a, b) \).
Define a new function: \[ g(x) = f(x) e^{-x} \]
Why define this? Because we want to relate \( f'(x) \) and \( f(x) \). This substitution simplifies comparison.
Now compute \( g'(x) \): \[ g'(x) = \frac{d}{dx}[f(x) e^{-x}] = f'(x)e^{-x} - f(x)e^{-x} = e^{-x}(f'(x) - f(x)) \]
So: \[ g'(x) = 0 \iff f'(x) = f(x) \]
Now, note that:
Therefore, by Rolle’s Theorem, there exists a point \( c \in (a, b) \) such that: \[ g'(c) = 0 \Rightarrow f'(c) - f(c) = 0 \Rightarrow f'(c) = f(c) \]
This confirms option (A) is true.
\[ \boxed{\text{There exists at least one point } c \in (a, b) \text{ for which } f'(c) = f(c)} \]