This problem asks for the ratio of the magnetic field at a point on the axis of a circular current-carrying coil to the magnetic field at its center. We are given the ratio of the axial distance to the radius of the coil.
The solution requires the formulas for the magnetic field produced by a circular current-carrying coil at its center and at a point on its axis.
Here, \( \mu_0 \) is the permeability of free space.
Step 1: Formulate the ratio \( \frac{B_2}{B_1} \).
We need to find the ratio of the magnetic field on the axis (\( B_2 \)) to the magnetic field at the center (\( B_1 \)).
\[ \frac{B_2}{B_1} = \frac{\frac{\mu_0 I R^2}{2(R^2 + x^2)^{3/2}}}{\frac{\mu_0 I}{2R}} \]Step 2: Simplify the expression for the ratio.
We can cancel the common terms \( \frac{\mu_0 I}{2} \) from the numerator and the denominator:
\[ \frac{B_2}{B_1} = \frac{R^2}{(R^2 + x^2)^{3/2}} \times \frac{R}{1} \] \[ \frac{B_2}{B_1} = \frac{R^3}{(R^2 + x^2)^{3/2}} \]Step 3: Use the given relationship between the axial distance \( x \) and the radius \( R \).
We are given that \( x : R = 3 : 4 \), which means:
\[ \frac{x}{R} = \frac{3}{4} \implies x = \frac{3}{4}R \]Step 4: Substitute the value of \( x \) into the simplified ratio expression.
\[ \frac{B_2}{B_1} = \frac{R^3}{\left(R^2 + \left(\frac{3}{4}R\right)^2\right)^{3/2}} \] \[ \frac{B_2}{B_1} = \frac{R^3}{\left(R^2 + \frac{9}{16}R^2\right)^{3/2}} \] \[ \frac{B_2}{B_1} = \frac{R^3}{\left(\frac{16R^2 + 9R^2}{16}\right)^{3/2}} = \frac{R^3}{\left(\frac{25R^2}{16}\right)^{3/2}} \]Now, we evaluate the denominator:
\[ \left(\frac{25R^2}{16}\right)^{3/2} = \left( \sqrt{\frac{25R^2}{16}} \right)^3 = \left( \frac{5R}{4} \right)^3 = \frac{125R^3}{64} \]Substitute this back into the ratio:
\[ \frac{B_2}{B_1} = \frac{R^3}{\frac{125R^3}{64}} \]Cancel the \( R^3 \) term:
\[ \frac{B_2}{B_1} = \frac{1}{\frac{125}{64}} = \frac{64}{125} \]Therefore, the ratio \( \frac{B_2}{B_1} \) is \( \frac{64}{125} \).
Uniform magnetic fields of different strengths $ B_1 $ and $ B_2 $, both normal to the plane of the paper, exist as shown in the figure. A charged particle of mass $ m $ and charge $ q $, at the interface at an instant, moves into region 2 with velocity $ v $ and returns to the interface. It continues to move into region 1 and finally reaches the interface. What is the displacement of the particle during this movement along the interface?
Consider the velocity of the particle to be normal to the magnetic field and $ B_2 > B_1 $.
