Question:

Let \( a_n = 1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \cdots + \frac{1}{n} \) and \( b_n = \sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{1}{k^2} \) for all \( n \in \mathbb{N} \). Then

Updated On: Oct 1, 2024
  • \( (a_n) \) is a Cauchy sequence but \( (b_n) \) is NOT a Cauchy sequence
  • \( (a_n) \) is NOT a Cauchy sequence but \( (b_n) \) is a Cauchy sequence
  • both \( (a_n) \) and \( (b_n) \) are Cauchy sequences
  • neither \( (a_n) \) nor \( (b_n) \) is a Cauchy sequence
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The Correct Option is B

Solution and Explanation

The correct option is (B): \( (a_n) \) is NOT a Cauchy sequence but \( (b_n) \) is a Cauchy sequence
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