To determine the convergence of the sequence \(a_n\) and the series \(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n\), we need to analyze both these mathematical entities step-by-step.
The sequence is defined as:
\(a_n = \frac{1 + 2^{-2} + \cdots + n^{-2}}{n}\)
This sequence can be rewritten using the summation notation:
\(a_n = \frac{\sum_{k=1}^{n} k^{-2}}{n}\)
As \(n\) tends to infinity, the numerator \(\sum_{k=1}^{n} k^{-2}\) approximates the sum of the series \(\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} k^{-2}\), which is known to converge to a finite number (specifically, \(\frac{\pi^2}{6}\)). Therefore, the sequence can be expressed as:
\(\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\sum_{k=1}^{n} k^{-2}}{n} = 0\)
Thus, the sequence \(a_n\) converges to 0.
Consider the series:
\(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{\sum_{k=1}^{n} k^{-2}}{n}\)
Since \(a_n = \frac{\sum_{k=1}^{n} k^{-2}}{n}\) behaves similarly to the harmonic series when considered for its tail behavior (as \(\frac{1}{n}\) remains), we can use the standard comparison with the harmonic series:
The harmonic series is \(\sum \frac{1}{n}\), which diverges. Because \(\sum_{k=1}^{n} k^{-2} \leq n\) for large \(n\), \(a_n\) behaves similarly to \(\frac{1}{n}\) but without damping that ensures convergence.
Therefore, the series \(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n\) diverges.
After the analysis, we conclude that:
Thus, the correct answer is: the sequence (an) is convergent but the series \(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n\) is NOT convergent.