The function is:
\[ f(x) = \cos x - x + 1. \]
The derivative is:
\[ f'(x) = -\sin x - 1. \]
Since \( -\sin x - 1 < 0 \) for all \( x \in \mathbb{R} \), \( f(x) \) is strictly decreasing in \([0, \pi]\).
At \( x = 0 \),
\[ f(0) = \cos(0) - 0 + 1 = 2. \]
At \( x = \pi \),
\[ f(\pi) = \cos(\pi) - \pi + 1 = -\pi < 0. \]
By the intermediate value theorem, \( f(x) = 0 \) has exactly one root in \([0, \pi]\). Thus, (S1) is correct.
(S2) is incorrect because \( f(x) \) is strictly decreasing in \([0, \pi]\).
Final Answer: Only (S1) is correct.
If \[ f(x) = \int \frac{1}{x^{1/4} (1 + x^{1/4})} \, dx, \quad f(0) = -6 \], then f(1) is equal to:
A force \( \vec{f} = x^2 \hat{i} + y \hat{j} + y^2 \hat{k} \) acts on a particle in a plane \( x + y = 10 \). The work done by this force during a displacement from \( (0,0) \) to \( (4m, 2m) \) is Joules (round off to the nearest integer).