The given data:
Length of rod, \(\ell = 60 \, \text{cm} = 0.6 \, \text{m}\), Angular velocity, \(\omega = 20 \, \text{rad/s}\), Magnetic field, \(B = 0.5 \, \text{T}\).
The potential difference \(V_O - V_A\) between the ends of a rod rotating in a magnetic field is given by:
\[ V_O - V_A = \frac{B \omega \ell^2}{2}. \]
Substitute the values:
\[ V_O - V_A = \frac{0.5 \times 20 \times (0.6)^2}{2} = \frac{0.5 \times 20 \times 0.36}{2}. \]
\[ V_O - V_A = \frac{3.6}{2} = 1.8 \, \text{V}. \]
However, since the magnetic field is parallel to the axis of rotation, no emf is induced across the rod. Therefore,
\[ V_A = V_B \implies V_A - V_B = 0. \]
Answer: \(0 \, \text{V}\)
A bead of mass \( m \) slides without friction on the wall of a vertical circular hoop of radius \( R \) as shown in figure. The bead moves under the combined action of gravity and a massless spring \( k \) attached to the bottom of the hoop. The equilibrium length of the spring is \( R \). If the bead is released from the top of the hoop with (negligible) zero initial speed, the velocity of the bead, when the length of spring becomes \( R \), would be (spring constant is \( k \), \( g \) is acceleration due to gravity):
Let $ f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} $ be a twice differentiable function such that $$ f''(x)\sin\left(\frac{x}{2}\right) + f'(2x - 2y) = (\cos x)\sin(y + 2x) + f(2x - 2y) $$ for all $ x, y \in \mathbb{R} $. If $ f(0) = 1 $, then the value of $ 24f^{(4)}\left(\frac{5\pi}{3}\right) $ is: