Question:

A problem of statistics is given to three students A, B and C whose chances of solving are $\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3}$ and $\frac{1}{4}$ respectively. What is the probability that the problem will be solved?

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The probability that at least one of several independent events occurs is $1 - P(\text{none of the events occur})$.
Updated On: May 6, 2025
  • \( 25/32 \)
  • \( 23/32 \)
  • \( 21/32 \)
  • \( 29/32 \)
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The Correct Option is A

Solution and Explanation

Let $P(A)$, $P(B)$, and $P(C)$ be the probabilities that students A, B, and C solve the problem, respectively. We are given: $P(A) = \frac{1}{2}$ $P(B) = \frac{1}{3}$ $P(C) = \frac{1}{4}$ The probability that the problem will be solved is equal to 1 minus the probability that none of them solve the problem. Let $A'$, $B'$, and $C'$ be the events that A, B, and C do not solve the problem, respectively. $P(A') = 1 - P(A) = 1 - \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{2}$ $P(B') = 1 - P(B) = 1 - \frac{1}{3} = \frac{2}{3}$ $P(C') = 1 - P(C) = 1 - \frac{1}{4} = \frac{3}{4}$ Assuming that the events of each student solving the problem are independent, the probability that none of them solve the problem is: $P(A' \cap B' \cap C') = P(A') \times P(B') \times P(C') = \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{2}{3} \times \frac{3}{4} = \frac{6}{24} = \frac{1}{4}$ The probability that the problem will be solved is: $P(\text{problem solved}) = 1 - P(\text{none solve the problem}) = 1 - P(A' \cap B' \cap C') = 1 - \frac{1}{4} = \frac{4 - 1}{4} = \frac{3}{4}$ Let's recheck the calculations. There seems to be a mistake. $P(A) = 1/2, P(B) = 1/3, P(C) = 1/4$ $P(A') = 1/2, P(B') = 2/3, P(C') = 3/4$ $P(\text{none solve}) = P(A')P(B')P(C') = (1/2)(2/3)(3/4) = 6/24 = 1/4$ $P(\text{solved}) = 1 - P(\text{none solve}) = 1 - 1/4 = 3/4 = 24/32$ None of the options match $3/4$. Let's re-read the question and options carefully. Let's recalculate the probability of at least one solving: $P(A \cup B \cup C) = P(A) + P(B) + P(C) - P(A \cap B) - P(A \cap C) - P(B \cap C) + P(A \cap B \cap C)$ Assuming independence: $P(A \cap B) = P(A)P(B) = (1/2)(1/3) = 1/6$ $P(A \cap C) = P(A)P(C) = (1/2)(1/4) = 1/8$ $P(B \cap C) = P(B)P(C) = (1/3)(1/4) = 1/12$ $P(A \cap B \cap C) = P(A)P(B)P(C) = (1/2)(1/3)(1/4) = 1/24$ $P(A \cup B \cup C) = 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 - 1/6 - 1/8 - 1/12 + 1/24$ $= (12 + 8 + 6 - 4 - 3 - 2 + 1) / 24 = (26 - 9 + 1) / 24 = 18 / 24 = 3 / 4 = 24 / 32$ There is still a mismatch. Let's check the options again. Let's use the complement rule again. $P(\text{solved}) = 1 - P(\text{none solved}) = 1 - (1/2 \times 2/3 \times 3/4) = 1 - 1/4 = 3/4 = 24/32$. There seems to be an error in the provided options. However, if we made a calculation error, let's re-check. $1/2 = 16/32$ $1/3 = 10.67/32$ $1/4 = 8/32$ $P(\text{none solve}) = 1/4 = 8/32$ $P(\text{solve}) = 1 - 1/4 = 3/4 = 24/32$ The closest option is 25/32, let's see if there was a slight misinterpretation. If the probabilities were chances out of a total, the interpretation would be different. However, the wording suggests direct probabilities. Given the discrepancy, and assuming a potential error in the options, the closest answer to the calculated probability of $24/32 = 3/4$ is $25/32$.
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