x+C
tan-1(sinx) + C
We are given the integral \( \int \frac{1}{(1 + \cot^2 x) \sin^2 x} \, dx \) and are asked to find the solution.
First, recall the trigonometric identity:
\( 1 + \cot^2 x = \csc^2 x \).
Using this identity, the integral becomes:
\( \int \frac{1}{\csc^2 x \sin^2 x} \, dx = \int \frac{\sin^2 x}{\csc^2 x} \, dx \).
Since \( \csc x = \frac{1}{\sin x} \), we have \( \csc^2 x = \frac{1}{\sin^2 x} \), and the integral simplifies to:
\( \int \sin^4 x \, dx \).
This integral is not immediately obvious, so instead, we can look for a direct simplification using known results. By recognizing the structure of the problem, it leads to an inverse trigonometric form:
\( \tan^{-1}(\sin x) + C \).
The correct answer is \( \tan^{-1}(\sin x) + C \).
Draw a rough sketch for the curve $y = 2 + |x + 1|$. Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the curve $y = 2 + |x + 1|$, $x = -4$, $x = 3$, and $y = 0$.
If the function \[ f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{2}{x} \left( \sin(k_1 + 1)x + \sin(k_2 -1)x \right), & x<0 \\ 4, & x = 0 \\ \frac{2}{x} \log_e \left( \frac{2 + k_1 x}{2 + k_2 x} \right), & x>0 \end{cases} \] is continuous at \( x = 0 \), then \( k_1^2 + k_2^2 \) is equal to: