Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
A set of functions \( f_1, f_2, \ldots, f_n \) is linearly dependent if there exist constants \( c_1, c_2, \ldots, c_n \), not all zero, such that the linear combination \( c_1 f_1(x) + c_2 f_2(x) + \ldots + c_n f_n(x) = 0 \) for all x in their domain. Otherwise, they are linearly independent. Another way to check for smooth functions is using the Wronskian. If the Wronskian is non-zero for some point, the functions are linearly independent.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
(A) \( f_1=x^2-1, f_2=3x^2, f_3=2-5x^2 \): We look for constants \(c_1, c_2, c_3\) not all zero such that \( c_1(x^2-1) + c_2(3x^2) + c_3(2-5x^2) = 0 \).
Grouping by powers of x: \( (c_1 + 3c_2 - 5c_3)x^2 + (-c_1 + 2c_3) = 0 \).
For this to be zero for all x, the coefficients must be zero:
\( c_1 + 3c_2 - 5c_3 = 0 \)
\( -c_1 + 2c_3 = 0 \implies c_1 = 2c_3 \).
Substitute \(c_1\) into the first equation: \( (2c_3) + 3c_2 - 5c_3 = 0 \implies 3c_2 - 3c_3 = 0 \implies c_2 = c_3 \).
We can choose a non-zero value, e.g., \( c_3 = 1 \). Then \( c_2 = 1 \) and \( c_1 = 2 \). Since we found a non-trivial solution (2, 1, 1), the functions are linearly dependent. The statement is correct.
(B) \( x, x^2, x^3 \): Consider \( c_1x + c_2x^2 + c_3x^3 = 0 \). A non-zero polynomial can only have a finite number of roots. For this equation to hold for all x, all coefficients must be zero (\(c_1=c_2=c_3=0\)). Thus, the functions are linearly independent. The statement is correct.
(C) 1, sinx, cosx: Consider \( c_1(1) + c_2\sin x + c_3\cos x = 0 \). Can we find non-zero constants for this to be true for all x? This is not possible. For example, at x=0, we get \(c_1+c_3=0\). At \(x=\pi/2\), we get \(c_1+c_2=0\). At \(x=\pi\), we get \(c_1-c_3=0\). From the first and third equations, \(c_1=c_3=0\), which then implies \(c_2=0\). The only solution is the trivial one. Therefore, the functions are linearly independent. The statement says they are linearly dependent, so the statement is not correct.
(D) x and \( \frac{1}{x} \): Consider \( c_1x + c_2(1/x) = 0 \). Multiply by x to get \( c_1x^2 + c_2 = 0 \). For this to be true for all x, we must have \(c_1=0\) and \(c_2=0\). So they are linearly independent. The statement is correct.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The statement that is not correct is (C), as the functions 1, sinx, and cosx are linearly independent.