Question:

Suppose expected inflation rate ($\pi^e_t$) of an individual is formed as:
$\pi^{e}_t = (1 βˆ’ \theta) \overline{\pi} + \theta \pi_{π‘‘βˆ’1}$
where, $\overline{\pi} $ is constant inflation rate, $\pi_{tβˆ’1}$ is previous year’s inflation rate, and $ 0 \leq \theta \leq 1$ is weight assigned to inflation rate at different points in time.
Then, which of the following is NOT CORRECT?

Show Hint

343
Updated On: Oct 1, 2024
  • If $\theta = 0$, then the individual assumes a constant inflation rate
  • If $\theta \approx 1$ and $\overline{\pi} < \pi_{π‘‘βˆ’1} $, then the individual expects this year’s inflation rate to be similar to last year
  • The original Phillips curve is derived under the assumption of $\theta \approx 1$
  • A modified Phillips curve is derived under the assumption of $\theta = 1$
Hide Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is C

Solution and Explanation

The correct answer is (C):The original Phillips curve is derived under the assumption of $\theta \approx 1$
Was this answer helpful?
0
0

Questions Asked in IIT JAM EN exam

View More Questions