Question

Principle: Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that person’s consent, in order to the committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause, or knowing it to be likely that the use of such force he will cause injury, fear or annoyance to the person to whom the force is used, is said to use criminal force to that other. Facts: 'A' has used criminal force to 'Z'.

• A. 'A' has committed criminal force to 'Z'
• B. 'A' has no intention to use criminal force to 'Z'
• C. 'A' has used force with the consent of 'Z'
• D. None of the above is correct

Hint:

Criminal force can be any physical act causing harm, injury, or fear without consent from the other party.

Answer 1

The Correct Option is A

As per the principle, any force used with the intention to cause injury, fear or annoyance is considered criminal force if used without consent.