Question:

Let $y = \sin^{-1} \left(\frac{2x}{1+x^{2}}\right), 0 < x < 1$ and $ 0 < y < \frac{\pi}{2}, $ then $\frac{dy}{dx} $ is equal to

Updated On: Jul 6, 2022
  • $\frac{2}{ 1 +x^2}$
  • $\frac{2x}{ 1 +x^2}$
  • $ - \frac{2}{ 1 +x^2}$
  • none of these
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The Correct Option is A

Solution and Explanation

Put $x =\tan\theta, \frac{2x}{1+x^{2}} = \frac{2\tan \theta}{1+\tan^{2} \theta} = \sin2 \theta $ $\therefore y = \sin^{-1} \left(\sin2 \theta \right) = 2 \theta = 2 \tan^{-1} x $ $\therefore \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{2}{1+x^{2}} $
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