Question:

Let \( X \) be a continuous random variable with the probability density function \[ f(x) = \frac{e^x}{(1 + e^x)^2}, \quad -\infty<x<\infty \] Then \( E(X) \) and \( P(X>1) \), respectively, are

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For continuous random variables, the expected value is calculated as the integral of \( x \) multiplied by the PDF over the range of the variable.
Updated On: Dec 12, 2025
  • 1 and \( (1 + e)^{-1} \)
  • 0 and \( 2(1 + e)^{-2} \)
  • 2 and \( (2 + 2e)^{-1} \)
  • 0 and \( (1 + e)^{-1} \)
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The Correct Option is D

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Calculate \( E(X) \).
The expected value of \( X \), \( E(X) \), is given by: \[ E(X) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x \cdot f(x) \, dx \] For the given probability density function (PDF), we calculate \( E(X) \) using integration. After performing the integration, we find that \( E(X) = 0 \). Step 2: Calculate \( P(X>1) \).
To find \( P(X>1) \), we use the PDF and integrate: \[ P(X>1) = \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{e^x}{(1 + e^x)^2} \, dx \] After calculating this integral, we get \( P(X>1) = (1 + e)^{-1} \). Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, the correct answer is (D) 0 and \( (1 + e)^{-1 \)}.
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