The given equation is:
\[\int_{0}^{x} \sqrt{1 - (y'(t))^2} \, dt = \int_{0}^{x} y(t) \, dt.\]
Differentiating both sides with respect to \(x\):
\[\sqrt{1 - (y'(x))^2} = y(x).\]
Squaring both sides:
\[1 - (y'(x))^2 = y(x)^2.\]
Rearranging terms:
\[(y'(x))^2 + y(x)^2 = 1.\]
Differentiating this equation with respect to \(x\):
\[2y'(x)y''(x) + 2y(x)y'(x) = 0.\]
Simplify:
\[y'(x)(y''(x) + y(x)) = 0.\]
Since \(y'(x) \neq 0\) in general, it must be that:
\[y''(x) + y(x) = 0.\]
Now consider the term \(y'' + y + 1\):
\[y''(x) + y(x) + 1 = 0 + 1 = 1.\]
Thus, at \(x = 2\):
\[1.\]
Answer: (1) 1
Let \( f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} \) be a twice differentiable function such that \( f(x + y) = f(x) f(y) \) for all \( x, y \in \mathbb{R} \). If \( f'(0) = 4a \) and \( f \) satisfies \( f''(x) - 3a f'(x) - f(x) = 0 \), where \( a > 0 \), then the area of the region R = {(x, y) | 0 \(\leq\) y \(\leq\) f(ax), 0 \(\leq\) x \(\leq\) 2\ is :