Let f :X\(\to\) Y be an invertible function. Show that f has unique inverse.
(Hint: suppose g1 and g2 are two inverses of f. Then for all y∈ Y, fog1(y) = IY (y) = fog2 (y). Use one-one ness of f).
Let f : X → Y be an invertible function. Also, suppose f has two inverses (say ).
Then, for all y ∈Y, we have: fog1 (y)=Iy (y)=fog2 (y)
=>f(g1 (y))=f(g2 (y))
g1 (y)=g2 (y) [f is invertible =>f is one-one
=>g1 = g2 [g is one-one].
Hence, f has a unique inverse.
LIST I | LIST II | ||
A. | Range of y=cosec-1x | I. | R-(-1, 1) |
B. | Domain of sec-1x | II. | (0, π) |
C. | Domain of sin-1x | III. | [-1, 1] |
D. | Range of y=cot-1x | IV. | \([\frac{-π}{2},\frac{π}{2}]\)-{0} |
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