Question:
Let π be a random variable having a probability mass function π(π₯) which is positive only for non-negative integers. If
π(π₯+1)=(\(\frac{ ln\,\, 3}{π₯+1}\)) π(π₯), π₯=0, 1, 2, β¦ ,
then πππ(π) equals
Let π be a random variable having a probability mass function π(π₯) which is positive only for non-negative integers. If
π(π₯+1)=(\(\frac{ ln\,\, 3}{π₯+1}\)) π(π₯), π₯=0, 1, 2, β¦ ,
then πππ(π) equals
π(π₯+1)=(\(\frac{ ln\,\, 3}{π₯+1}\)) π(π₯), π₯=0, 1, 2, β¦ ,
then πππ(π) equals
Updated On: Oct 1, 2024
- ln 3
- ln 6
- ln 9
- ln 18
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The Correct Option is A
Solution and Explanation
The correct option is (A): ln 3
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