Question:

Let $a_1=1, a_2, a_3, a_4, \ldots $ be consecutive natural numbersThen $\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{1+a_1 a_2}\right)+\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{1+a_2 a_3}\right)+\ldots +\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{1+a_{2021} a_{2022}}\right)$ is equal to

Updated On: Dec 12, 2024
  • $\cot ^{-1}(2022)-\frac{\pi}{4}$
  • $\frac{\pi}{4}-\cot ^{-1}(2022)$
  • $\tan ^{-1}(2022)-\frac{\pi}{4}$
  • $\frac{\pi}{4}-\tan ^{-1}(2022)$
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The Correct Option is B

Solution and Explanation

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So, the correct option is (B) : $\frac{\pi}{4}-\cot ^{-1}(2022)$
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Concepts Used:

Binomial Theorem

The binomial theorem formula is used in the expansion of any power of a binomial in the form of a series. The binomial theorem formula is 

Properties of Binomial Theorem

  • The number of coefficients in the binomial expansion of (x + y)n is equal to (n + 1).
  • There are (n+1) terms in the expansion of (x+y)n.
  • The first and the last terms are xn and yn respectively.
  • From the beginning of the expansion, the powers of x, decrease from n up to 0, and the powers of a, increase from 0 up to n.
  • The binomial coefficients in the expansion are arranged in an array, which is called Pascal's triangle. This pattern developed is summed up by the binomial theorem formula.