If a variable π§ shows a standard normal distribution, then the percent probability that $0 β€ π§^2 β€ 1$ is ________ (rounded off to the nearest integer).
- 34
- 68
- 95
- 99
The Correct Option is B
Solution and Explanation
The standard normal distribution has 68% of its probability within one standard deviation of the mean. Since z2 is bounded between 0 and 1, the percentage probability is 68%.
Top Questions on Normal distribution
Let \( (X, Y)^T \) follow a bivariate normal distribution with \[ E(X) = 2, \, E(Y) = 3, \, {Var}(X) = 16, \, {Var}(Y) = 25, \, {Cov}(X, Y) = 14. \] Then \[ 2\pi \left( \Pr(X>2, Y>3) - \frac{1}{4} \right) \] equals _________ (rounded off to two decimal places).
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