Question:

If $$ A = \frac{1}{2} \begin{pmatrix} -1 & 1 & 1 & 1 \\ 1 & -1 & 1 & 1 \\ 1 & 1 & -1 & 1 \\ 1 & 1 & 1 & -1 \end{pmatrix}, $$ then the inverse of $ AA^T $ is:

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Orthogonal matrices satisfy \( A^T = A^{-1} \) and \( A^2 = I \) when symmetric.
Updated On: May 28, 2025
  • \( I \)
  • \( 2I \)
  • \( 3I \)
  • \( 4I \)
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The Correct Option is A

Solution and Explanation

Calculate \( AA^T \): Since \( A \) is symmetric, \( A^T = A \). \[ AA^T = A^2 \] Calculate \( A^2 \) for given \( A \) or use properties of orthogonal matrices. Matrix \( A \) here is orthogonal scaled by \( \frac{1}{2} \), satisfying \[ A^2 = I \] Hence, \[ (AA^T)^{-1} = (A^2)^{-1} = I \]
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