Question:
For \( n \in \mathbb{N} \), let \( X_1, X_2, \ldots, X_n \) be a random sample from the \( F_{20,40} \) distribution. Then, as \( n \to \infty \), \( \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{1}{X_i} \) converges in probability to __________ (round off to 2 decimal places).
For \( n \in \mathbb{N} \), let \( X_1, X_2, \ldots, X_n \) be a random sample from the \( F_{20,40} \) distribution. Then, as \( n \to \infty \), \( \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{1}{X_i} \) converges in probability to __________ (round off to 2 decimal places).
Updated On: Oct 1, 2024
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Correct Answer: 1 - 1.2
Solution and Explanation
The correct Answer is : 1.00 -1.20(Approx.)
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