\[ \text{Induced emf} \, (\mathcal{E}) = R \cdot I = 10 \times 2 = 20 \, \text{V} \]
Also, emf is related to change in flux by:
\[ \mathcal{E} = \frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t} \Rightarrow \Delta \Phi = \mathcal{E} \cdot \Delta t = 20 \cdot 1 \times 10^{-3} = 20 \times 10^{-3} = 2 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{Wb} \]
The change in magnetic flux is \( {2 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{Wb}} \), so the correct answer is (B).
We use Faraday’s Law of Induction to solve this problem. The induced EMF in the coil can be expressed as: \[ \mathcal{E} = - \frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t} \] Where: - \(\mathcal{E}\) is the induced EMF, - \(\Delta \Phi\) is the change in magnetic flux, - \(\Delta t\) is the time interval. Now, using Ohm's law, the induced EMF can also be expressed as: \[ \mathcal{E} = I \times R \] Where: - \(I = 2 \, A\) (induced current), - \(R = 10 \, \Omega\) (resistance of the coil). Thus, the induced EMF is: \[ \mathcal{E} = 2 \, \text{A} \times 10 \, \Omega = 20 \, \text{V} \] Since \(\mathcal{E} = - \frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t}\), we can solve for the change in magnetic flux \(\Delta \Phi\): \[ \Delta \Phi = - \mathcal{E} \times \Delta t = - 20 \, \text{V} \times 1 \, \text{ms} = - 20 \times 10^{-3} \, \text{Wb} = - 2 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{Wb} \] Thus, the change in magnetic flux is \(2 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{Wb}\).