Chancroid
Syphilis
Herpes genitalis
The young woman describes a painless ulcer in the genital area, which is further associated with non-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. These clinical features are classic indicators of primary syphilis, caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.
Let's break down the differential diagnosis with the provided options:
Given these comparisons, the diagnosis that correlates with a painless ulcer and non-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy is syphilis.
A patient presents with painful vesicles in the genital region. Identify the lesion shown in the image and choose the correct diagnosis.
A 30-year-old patient presents with a history of flat lesions near the anal canal, rashes on the body, and hair loss that follows a particular pattern, as shown in the image. What is the diagnosis?
A 38-year-old patient with hypopigmented nodular lesions with anesthesia overarm with ulnar nerve involvement underwent a biopsy and intradermal antigen test. Based on the image, which statement regarding the condition is most accurate?
A 2-month-old child is brought to the ophthalmology OPD with the following presentation. What is the ideal management?
Which of the following vaccines is kept at the lowest level?
Which of the following is true regarding the image provided?
A patient presents with no pulse, and the ECG shows the following rhythm. What is the next appropriate step?