Chancroid
Syphilis
Herpes genitalis
The young woman describes a painless ulcer in the genital area, which is further associated with non-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. These clinical features are classic indicators of primary syphilis, caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.
Let's break down the differential diagnosis with the provided options:
Given these comparisons, the diagnosis that correlates with a painless ulcer and non-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy is syphilis.
A 30-year-old patient presents with a history of flat lesions near the anal canal, rashes on the body, and hair loss that follows a particular pattern, as shown in the image. What is the diagnosis?
A patient presents with painful vesicles in the genital region. Identify the lesion shown in the image and choose the correct diagnosis.
The primary source of energy for Earth’s climate system is:
The most common site of metastasis for breast cancer is:
Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for the motor innervation of the muscles of mastication?
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Parkinson’s disease?
Which enzyme is deficient in Gaucher’s disease?