Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction:
\( \text{emf} = -N \cdot \frac{d\Phi}{dt}\)
In this case, we are given:
The magnetic flux (Φ) passing through the coil is given by:
\( \Phi = B \cdot A\)
\( \Phi = 1.0 \, \text{Wb/m}^2 \times 0.01 \, \text{m}^2\)
\( \Phi = 0.01 \, \text{Wb}\)
Now, we can calculate the rate of change of magnetic flux \( \left(\frac{d\Phi}{dt}\right) \):
\( \frac{d\Phi}{dt} = \frac{\Phi_{\text{final}} - \Phi_{\text{initial}}}{dt}\)
Since the coil is removed from the field, the final magnetic flux is zero (\( \Phi_{\text{final}} = 0 \)), and the initial magnetic flux (\( \Phi_{\text{initial}} \)) is 0.01 Wb. Substituting these values:
\( \frac{d\Phi}{dt} = \frac{0 \, \text{Wb} - 0.01 \, \text{Wb}}{0.2 \, \text{s}}\)
\( \frac{d\Phi}{dt} = -0.05 \, \text{Wb/s}\)
Finally, substituting the values into the emf formula:
\( \text{emf} = -N \cdot \frac{d\Phi}{dt}\)
\(\text{emf} = -80 \times (-0.05 \, \text{Wb/s})\)
\(\text{emf} = 4 \, \text{V}\)
Therefore, the emf induced in the coil is 4 V. Option (B) is correct.
The induced EMF in a coil is given by Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction:
\(\mathcal{E} = -N \frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t}\)
Where:
The magnetic flux (\(\Phi\)) is given by:
\(\Phi = B \cdot A = BA \cos \theta\)
Where:
Given:
Initially, the magnetic flux through the coil is:
\(\Phi_1 = B A = (1.0 \, \text{Wb/m}^2)(0.01 \, \text{m}^2) = 0.01 \, \text{Wb}\)
When the coil is removed from the field, the final magnetic flux is:
\(\Phi_2 = 0 \, \text{Wb}\)
The change in magnetic flux is:
\(\Delta \Phi = \Phi_2 - \Phi_1 = 0 - 0.01 = -0.01 \, \text{Wb}\)
Now, calculate the induced EMF:
\(\mathcal{E} = -N \frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t} = -80 \frac{-0.01}{0.2} = \frac{80 \times 0.01}{0.2} = \frac{0.8}{0.2} = 4 \, \text{V}\)
Therefore, the induced EMF in the coil is 4 V.