There is no contradiction. When we measure a length with scale or any other instrument,
we only obtain an approximate rational value. We never obtain an exact value.
For this reason, we may not realise that either c or d is irrational.
Therefore, the \(\frac{ c}{d}\) fraction is irrational.
Hence, π is irrational.
For real number a, b (a > b > 0), let
\(\text{{Area}} \left\{ (x, y) : x^2 + y^2 \leq a^2 \text{{ and }} \frac{x^2}{a^2} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} \geq 1 \right\} = 30\pi\)
and
\(\text{{Area}} \left\{ (x, y) : x^2 + y^2 \geq b^2 \text{{ and }} \frac{x^2}{a^2} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} \leq 1 \right\} = 18\pi\)
Then the value of (a – b)2 is equal to _____.
A driver of a car travelling at \(52\) \(km \;h^{–1}\) applies the brakes Shade the area on the graph that represents the distance travelled by the car during the period.
Which part of the graph represents uniform motion of the car?