Step 1: Show $H \subseteq K$
Since $H$ is abelian, for all $h_1, h_2 \in H$: $$h_1 h_2 = h_2 h_1$$
This means every element of $H$ commutes with all elements of $H$, so $H \subseteq K$.
Step 2: Show $K \subseteq H$
Let $g \in K$. Then $gh = hg$ for all $h \in H$.
This means $ghg^{-1} = h$ for all $h \in H$, which implies $h \in gHg^{-1}$.
Therefore, $h \in H \cap gHg^{-1}$.
Case 1: If $g \in H$, then clearly $g \in K$ is consistent.
Case 2: If $g \notin H$, then by the given property: $$H \cap gHg^{-1} = {e}$$
But we just showed that all $h \in H$ satisfy $h \in H \cap gHg^{-1}$.
Since $H$ is non-trivial (contains elements other than $e$), this would contradict $H \cap gHg^{-1} = {e}$.
Therefore, $g \notin H$ is impossible for $g \in K$.
Thus, $K \subseteq H$.
Step 3: Conclude $K = H$
From Steps 1 and 2: $K = H$
(C) is TRUE
Step 4: Check if there exists abelian $L \subseteq G$ with $K \subsetneq L$
Suppose such an abelian subgroup $L$ exists with $K \subsetneq L$.
Then there exists $\ell \in L$ with $\ell \notin K = H$.
Since $\ell \in L$ and $H \subseteq K \subseteq L$, and $L$ is abelian: $$\ell h = h \ell \text{ for all } h \in H$$
This means $\ell \in K$, which contradicts $\ell \notin K$.
Therefore, no such abelian subgroup $L$ exists.
(D) is TRUE
Evaluating other options:
(A) $K$ is a proper subgroup of $H$:
Since $K = H$, this is FALSE
(B) $H$ is a proper subgroup of $K$:
Since $K = H$, this is FALSE
Answer: (C) and (D) are true