Question:
Let f(x) = cos(x) and g(x) =\(1-\frac{x^2}{2}\) for \(x \in (-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2})\). Then
Let f(x) = cos(x) and g(x) =\(1-\frac{x^2}{2}\) for \(x \in (-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2})\). Then
Updated On: Oct 1, 2024
- f(x) ≥ g(x) for all \(x \in (-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2})\)
- f(x) ≤ g(x) for all \(x \in (-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2})\)
- f(x) − g(x) changes sign exactly once on \((-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2})\)
- f(x) − g(x) changes sign more than once on \((-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2})\)
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The Correct Option is A
Solution and Explanation
The correct option is (A) : f(x) ≥ g(x) for all \(x \in (-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2})\).
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