Question:
Let π and π be i.i.d. random variables each having the π(0, 1) distribution. Let π=\(\frac{π}{π}\) and π=|π|. Then, which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
Let π and π be i.i.d. random variables each having the π(0, 1) distribution. Let π=\(\frac{π}{π}\) and π=|π|. Then, which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
Updated On: Oct 1, 2024
- π has a Cauchy distribution
- πΈ(ππ)<β, for some π β₯ 1
- πΈ(ππ‘π) does not exist for all π‘β(ββ, 0)
- π 2~πΉ1,1
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The Correct Option is A, D
Solution and Explanation
The correct options are: A and D
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