Question:

Let 𝑋 and π‘Œ be i.i.d. random variables each having the 𝑁(0, 1) distribution. Let π‘ˆ=\(\frac{𝑋}{π‘Œ}\) and 𝑍=|π‘ˆ|. Then, which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

Updated On: Nov 17, 2025
  • π‘ˆ has a Cauchy distribution
  • 𝐸(𝑍𝑝)<∞, for some 𝑝 β‰₯ 1
  • 𝐸(𝑒𝑑𝑍) does not exist for all π‘‘βˆˆ(βˆ’βˆž, 0)
  • 𝑍 2~𝐹1,1
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The Correct Option is A, D

Solution and Explanation

To solve the given problem, we need to analyze the distributional properties of the random variables π‘ˆ and 𝑍. 

  1. Consider the random variable \(π‘ˆ = \frac{𝑋}{π‘Œ}\). Since both 𝑋 and π‘Œ are independent and identically distributed (i.i.d.) standard normal random variables, π‘ˆ follows a Cauchy distribution with location parameter 0 and scale parameter 1. This is a well-known result in probability theory when dealing with the ratio of two standard normal variables. Therefore, the statement "π‘ˆ has a Cauchy distribution" is true.
  2. Next, consider the random variable \(𝑍 = |π‘ˆ|\). Since π‘ˆ is Cauchy distributed, 𝑍 is distributed as half-Cauchy.
  3. Now, examine the statement "𝐸(𝑍^{𝑝}) < ∞, for some 𝑝 β‰₯ 1". The Cauchy distribution does not have a finite expectation or higher-order moments. Since the expectation of \(π‘ˆ\) is undefined, so are the moments of \(𝑍\). Therefore, this statement is false.
  4. Check the statement "𝐸(𝑒^{𝑑𝑍}) does not exist for all 𝑑 ∈ (βˆ’βˆž, 0)". This statement is false because, for a Cauchy distribution, the moment generating function does not exist, making it impossible to find an expected value for an exponential function involving 𝑍.
  5. Finally, let's consider the variable \(𝑍^2\). The statement "𝑍^2 ~ F_{1,1}" is true because, if π‘ˆ has a standard Cauchy distribution, then \(𝑍^2 = π‘ˆ^2\) follows an \(F\)-distribution with parameters \((1,1)\).

Thus, the correct statements are:

  • π‘ˆ has a Cauchy distribution.
  • \(𝑍^2 \sim F_{1,1}\).
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