Question:

Let (an) be a sequence of real numbers defined by
\(a_n=\begin{cases} 1 & \text{if } n \text{ is prime}\\    -1 & \text{if } n \text{ is not prime} \end{cases}\)
Let \(b_n=\frac{a_n}{n}\) for n ∈ \(\N\). Then

Updated On: Nov 17, 2025
  • both (an) and (bn) are convergent
  • (an) is convergent but (bn) is NOT convergent
  • (an) is NOT convergent but (bn) is convergent
  • both (an) and (bn) are NOT convergent
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The Correct Option is C

Solution and Explanation

To determine the convergence of the sequences \((a_n)\) and \((b_n)\), we need to analyze them individually.

  1. Analysis of the sequence \((a_n)\):
    • The sequence \((a_n)\) is defined as: \(a_n = \begin{cases} 1 & \text{if } n \text{ is prime} \\ -1 & \text{if } n \text{ is not prime} \end{cases}\)
    • This sequence alternates between 1 and -1 depending on whether \(n\) is prime or not. Since prime numbers are not regularly spaced, there is no consistent pattern in the sequence values.
    • Because \((a_n)\) does not settle to a single value (since it does not settle to a limit, as prime distribution is unpredictable), it cannot be convergent.
  2. Analysis of the sequence \((b_n)\):
    • The sequence \((b_n)\) is defined as: \(b_n = \frac{a_n}{n}\)
    • We analyze the limit of \((b_n)\) as \(n\) approaches infinity.
    • For any \(n\), \(\left|b_n\right| = \left|\frac{a_n}{n}\right| = \frac{1}{n}\). As \(n\) increases, \(\frac{1}{n}\) approaches 0.
    • Thus, \(\lim_{n \to \infty} b_n = 0\).
    • Since \((b_n)\) approaches a finite limit (0), it is convergent.

Therefore, the correct conclusion is that \((a_n)\) is not convergent, but \((b_n)\) is convergent.

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