Let (an) be a sequence of real numbers defined by \(a_n=\begin{cases} 1 & \text{if } n \text{ is prime}\\ -1 & \text{if } n \text{ is not prime} \end{cases}\) Let \(b_n=\frac{a_n}{n}\) for n ∈ \(\N\). Then
To determine the convergence of the sequences \((a_n)\) and \((b_n)\), we need to analyze them individually.
Analysis of the sequence \((a_n)\):
The sequence \((a_n)\) is defined as:
\(a_n = \begin{cases}
1 & \text{if } n \text{ is prime} \\
-1 & \text{if } n \text{ is not prime}
\end{cases}\)
This sequence alternates between 1 and -1 depending on whether \(n\) is prime or not. Since prime numbers are not regularly spaced, there is no consistent pattern in the sequence values.
Because \((a_n)\) does not settle to a single value (since it does not settle to a limit, as prime distribution is unpredictable), it cannot be convergent.
Analysis of the sequence \((b_n)\):
The sequence \((b_n)\) is defined as:
\(b_n = \frac{a_n}{n}\)
We analyze the limit of \((b_n)\) as \(n\) approaches infinity.
For any \(n\), \(\left|b_n\right| = \left|\frac{a_n}{n}\right| = \frac{1}{n}\). As \(n\) increases, \(\frac{1}{n}\) approaches 0.
Thus, \(\lim_{n \to \infty} b_n = 0\).
Since \((b_n)\) approaches a finite limit (0), it is convergent.
Therefore, the correct conclusion is that \((a_n)\) is not convergent, but \((b_n)\) is convergent.