Question:

Let π‘Œ~𝐹4,2 . Then, 𝑃(π‘Œβ‰€2) equals

Updated On: Oct 1, 2024
  • 0.60
  • 0.62
  • 0.64
  • 0.66
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The Correct Option is C

Solution and Explanation

The correct option is (C): 0.64
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