Question:
Let π1,π2, β¦ , π5 be π. π. π. random variables, each having the π΅πn (1, \(\frac{1}{2}\) ) distribution. Let πΎ=π1+π2+ β― + π5 and
\(f(x) =\begin{cases}0, & \quad \text{if }k=0,\\ x_1+x_2+...+x_k, & \quad if\,k=1,2,...,5. \end{cases}\)
Then, πΈ(π) equals ________
Let π1,π2, β¦ , π5 be π. π. π. random variables, each having the π΅πn (1, \(\frac{1}{2}\) ) distribution. Let πΎ=π1+π2+ β― + π5 and
\(f(x) =\begin{cases}0, & \quad \text{if }k=0,\\ x_1+x_2+...+x_k, & \quad if\,k=1,2,...,5. \end{cases}\)
Then, πΈ(π) equals ________
\(f(x) =\begin{cases}0, & \quad \text{if }k=0,\\ x_1+x_2+...+x_k, & \quad if\,k=1,2,...,5. \end{cases}\)
Then, πΈ(π) equals ________
Updated On: Oct 1, 2024
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Correct Answer: 1.5
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The correct answer is: 1.5
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