Question:
If $z$ and $?$ are two non-zero complex numbers such that $|z?| = 1$, and Arg $(z)$ - Arg $\left(\omega\right)=\frac{\pi}{2},$ then $\bar{z}\omega$ is equal to
If $z$ and $?$ are two non-zero complex numbers such that $|z?| = 1$, and Arg $(z)$ - Arg $\left(\omega\right)=\frac{\pi}{2},$ then $\bar{z}\omega$ is equal to
Updated On: Jul 14, 2022
- 1
- -1
- i
- -i
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The Correct Option is D
Solution and Explanation
Arg $\left(\frac{z}{\omega}\right)=\frac{\pi}{2}$
$\left|z\omega\right|=1$
$\bar{z}\,\omega=-i$ or $+i.$
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Concepts Used:
Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations
Complex Number: Any number that is formed as a+ib is called a complex number. For example: 9+3i,7+8i are complex numbers. Here i = -1. With this we can say that i² = 1. So, for every equation which does not have a real solution we can use i = -1.
Quadratic equation: A polynomial that has two roots or is of the degree 2 is called a quadratic equation. The general form of a quadratic equation is y=ax²+bx+c. Here a≠0, b and c are the real numbers.
