Question:
If z and \(\omega\) are non-zero complex numbers such that \(|z\omega|=1\) and \(arg(z)-arg(\omega)=\frac{\pi}{2}\), then \(\bar{z}\omega\) is equal to
If z and \(\omega\) are non-zero complex numbers such that \(|z\omega|=1\) and \(arg(z)-arg(\omega)=\frac{\pi}{2}\), then \(\bar{z}\omega\) is equal to
Updated On: Oct 4, 2024
- 1
- -1
- i
- -i
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The Correct Option is D
Solution and Explanation
The correct option is (D): -i
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