We know for a binomial distribution $X \sim B(n, p)$:
\[
np = 2, \quad np(1 - p) = 1 \Rightarrow p = \frac{2}{n}
\]
Substitute into variance:
\[
np(1-p) = 2(1 - \frac{2}{n}) = 1 \Rightarrow \frac{4}{n} = 1 \Rightarrow n = 4, \; p = \frac{1}{2}
\]
So, $X \sim B(4, \frac{1}{2})$.
\[
P(X>1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1) = 1 - [P(0) + P(1)]
\]
Using binomial formula:
\[
P(0) = \binom{4}{0}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^4 = \frac{1}{16}, \quad P(1) = \binom{4}{1}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^4 = \frac{4}{16}
\]
\[
P(X>1) = 1 - (\frac{1}{16} + \frac{4}{16}) = \frac{11}{16}
\]
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Hide Solution
Verified By Collegedunia
Approach Solution -2
Step 1: Understand the problem
We have a binomial random variable \(X\) with mean \(\mu = 2\) and variance \(\sigma^2 = 1\). We need to find \(P(X > 1)\).
Step 2: Use properties of binomial distribution
For a binomial variable with parameters \(n\) and \(p\):
\[
\mu = np = 2, \quad \sigma^2 = np(1-p) = 1
\]
Step 3: Find \(n\) and \(p\)
From the mean: \(np = 2\)
From the variance: \(np(1-p) = 1\)
Divide variance by mean:
\[
\frac{np(1-p)}{np} = 1 - p = \frac{1}{2} \implies p = \frac{1}{2}
\]
Using \(p = \frac{1}{2}\) in mean:
\[
n \times \frac{1}{2} = 2 \implies n = 4
\]
Step 4: Write the probability expression
We want \(P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1) = 1 - [P(X=0) + P(X=1)]\).