Comprehension
If a person enters into a transaction which is surely likely to result in loss, he cannot be accused of insider trading. In other words, the actual gain or loss is immaterial, but the motive for making a gain is essential.

The words, “likely to materially affect the price” appearing in the main part of Regulation 2(ha) gain significance for the simple reason that profit motive, if not actual profit should be the motivating factor for a person to indulge in insider trading. This is why the information in Item No.(vii) of the Explanation under Regulation 2(ha) may have to be examined with reference to the words “likely to materially affect the price”. Keeping this in mind let us now come back to the facts of the case.

Gammon Infrastructure Projects Limited (“GIPL”) was awarded a contract for the execution of a project, whose total cost was admittedly ₹ 1,648 crores. Simplex Infrastructure Limited (“SIL”) was awarded a contract for a project whose cost was ₹ 940 crores. Both GIPL and SIL created Special Purpose Vehicles and then they entered into two shareholders Agreements. Under these Agreements, GIPL and SIL will have to make investments in the Special Purpose Vehicles created by each other, in such a manner that each of them will hold 49% equity interest in the other’s project.

It means that GIPL could have acquired 49% equity interest in the project worth ₹ 940 crores and SIL would have acquired 49% equity interest in a project worth ₹ 1,648 crore.

In arithmetical terms, the acquisition by GIPL, of an equity interest in SIL’s project was worth ₹ 460 crores approximately. Similarly, the acquisition by SIL, of the equity interest in GIPL’s project was worth ₹ 807.52 crores. Therefore, the cancellation of the shareholders Agreements resulted in GIPL gaining very hugely in terms of order book value. In such circumstances an ordinary man of prudence would expect an increase in the value of the shares of GIPL and would wait for the market trend to show itself up, if he actually desired to indulge in insider trading. But the respondent did not wait for the information about the market trend, after the information became public. The reason given by him, which is also accepted by the Whole-Time Member (“WTM”) and the Tribunal is that he had to dispose of his shares as well as certain other properties for the purpose of honouring a Corporate Debt Restructuring (“CDR”) package. It is on record that if the CDR package had not gone through successfully, the parent company of GIPL namely, Gammon India Ltd., could have gone for bankruptcy.

Therefore, the Tribunal was right in thinking that the respondent had no motive or intention to indulge in insider trading because he had a pressing necessity.

As a matter of fact, the Tribunal found that the closing price of shares rose, after the disclosure of the information. This shows that the unpublished price sensitive information was such that it was likely to be more beneficial to the shareholders, after the disclosure was made. Any person desirous of indulging in insider trading, would have waited till the information went public, to sell his holdings. The respondent did not do this, obviously on account of a pressing necessity.

[Excerpted from the judgment delivered by Ramasubramanian, J., in Securities and Exchange Board of India v. Abhijit Rajan, CA No. 563 of 2020 (hereafter ‘A Rajan’)]
Question: 1

In A Rajan, which of the following are essential prerequisites for an insider to fall within the mischief of “insider trading” under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 1992?

Show Hint

In insider trading cases, courts often stress motive — here, the profit motive — over actual monetary outcomes.
Updated On: Aug 17, 2025
  • Lack of access to price sensitive information
  • A profit motive
  • Mens rea
  • Abstaining from dealing in securities of a company about which the insider has price sensitive information
Hide Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is B

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Understanding the case context.
The judgment in A Rajan clarifies that actual gain or loss is immaterial, but the motive for making a gain is essential for insider trading. 
Step 2: Applying to the question.
Here, the insider must have engaged in the trade with a profit motive, even if the profit is not ultimately realized. 
Step 3: Elimination of incorrect options.
(A) is incorrect — having access to price-sensitive information is a condition, but the question asks for an essential prerequisite per the judgment.
(C) "Mens rea" is a general legal term for guilty intent, but the case focuses specifically on a profit motive, which is narrower.
(D) abstaining from dealing is the opposite of engaging in insider trading, so it is irrelevant. \[ \boxed{\text{(B)}} \]

Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Question: 2

Which of the following are the key facts in A Rajan?

Show Hint

When distinguishing insider trading from legitimate trades, timing of the transaction relative to the public release of information is critical.
Updated On: Aug 17, 2025
  • The respondent sold the shares of the company about which he had unpublished price sensitive information (“UPSI”) after the rise in price of the shares consequential to the disclosure of the UPSI.
  • The respondent did not possess any UPSI about the company whose shares he sold.
  • The respondent sold the shares of the company about which he had UPSI before the rise in price of the shares consequential to the disclosure of the UPSI in his possession.
  • The respondent did not sell any shares of the company about which he had UPSI.
Hide Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is C

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Extracting facts from the judgment.
The respondent possessed UPSI about GIPL, but sold shares before the price rise that occurred after the public disclosure of the UPSI. Step 2: Motive determination.
He sold due to a pressing financial necessity (honouring a CDR package), not to profit from the price change. Step 3: Elimination of wrong options.
(A) is wrong — he sold before the rise, not after.
(B) is wrong — he did possess UPSI.
(D) is wrong — he did sell the shares. \[ \boxed{\text{(C)}} \]
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Question: 3

Based on the passage, what is `insider trading` under the Insider Trading Regulations?

Show Hint

In insider trading, two conditions are critical: possession of UPSI and intention to profit from it. Without either, the definition is not satisfied.
Updated On: Aug 17, 2025
  • Dealing in the securities of a company about which one does not have UPSI, without any desire to make a profit.
  • Dealing in the securities of a company about which one has UPSI, without any desire to make a profit.
  • Dealing in the securities of a company about which one does not have UPSI, with the desire to make a profit.
  • Dealing in the securities of a company about which one has UPSI, with the desire to make a profit.
Hide Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is D

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Understanding UPSI and insider trading definition.
From the passage, UPSI means ``Unpublished Price Sensitive Information''. The key factor for insider trading is that the person possesses UPSI and engages in securities transactions using this information.
Step 2: Importance of profit motive.
The passage states that ``the actual gain or loss is immaterial, but the motive for making a gain is essential.'' This means that the intention to profit from the UPSI is necessary for the act to be considered insider trading, regardless of whether a profit is ultimately realized.
Step 3: Eliminating incorrect options.
(A) Incorrect — No UPSI is involved, so cannot be insider trading.
(B) Incorrect — While UPSI is involved, absence of profit motive excludes it from being insider trading.
(C) Incorrect — No UPSI is involved, even though there is a profit motive.
(D) Correct — Involves UPSI and a profit motive, fulfilling the definition in the passage.
\[ \boxed{\text{D}} \]
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Question: 4

Based on the passage, what was the impact of the cancellation of the shareholders’ agreements between SIL and GIPL?

Show Hint

Always match the exact language in the passage (“rose” → “increase”) to eliminate opposite or irrelevant options quickly.
Updated On: Aug 17, 2025
  • There was a decrease in the closing prices of the shares after this information was disclosed.
  • There was an increase in the closing prices of the shares after this information was disclosed.
  • There was no change in the closing prices of the shares after this information was disclosed.
  • The company’s securities were delisted from the stock exchange.
Hide Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is B

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Identifying the relevant passage.
The passage clearly states: “the Tribunal found that the closing price of shares rose, after the disclosure of the information.” 
Step 2: Interpreting the statement.
“Closing price rose” means there was an increase in the share price after disclosure. This indicates a positive market reaction. 
Step 3: Eliminating incorrect options.
(A) Incorrect — Opposite of what the passage states. 
(C) Incorrect — The passage confirms there was a change. 
(D) Incorrect — There is no mention of delisting from the stock exchange. 
Thus, (B) is the only correct choice. \[ \boxed{\text{B}} \]

Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Question: 5

Which of the following approaches has been adopted in several jurisdictions, including India, to determine cases of insider trading?

Show Hint

For insider trading, remember that “parity of information” ensures a fair market where no one trades with a secret advantage.
Updated On: Aug 17, 2025
  • Parity of information
  • Lifting the corporate veil
  • Indoor management
  • Constructive notice
Hide Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is A

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Concept of “parity of information.”
The “parity of information” approach means that all market participants should have equal access to material, price-sensitive information before trading. Step 2: Passage reference.
The passage references this approach as being used in India and other jurisdictions for insider trading regulation. Step 3: Elimination of other options.
(B) Lifting the corporate veil — Used in company law to identify real owners, not directly for insider trading tests.
(C) Indoor management — Relates to assumptions outsiders can make about a company’s internal affairs.
(D) Constructive notice — Legal presumption of knowledge of public documents, not relevant here.
\[ \boxed{\text{A}} \]
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Question: 6

What reason did A Rajan give for selling his shares in the company about which he had UPSI?

Show Hint

When a question involves a person’s motive, look for explicit statements in the passage that clarify intent — here, “pressing necessity” outweighed profit motive.
Updated On: Aug 17, 2025
  • He expected a huge rise in the share price of GIPL upon the disclosure of the UPSI in his possession.
  • It was a compulsory requirement under the shareholders’ agreement with SIL.
  • He needed funds to buy the securities of SIL.
  • He needed funds to honour a CDR package.
Hide Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is D

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Extracting the relevant detail from the passage.
The passage notes: “The reason given by him… is that he had to dispose of his shares… for the purpose of honouring a Corporate Debt Restructuring (‘CDR’) package.” Step 2: Why this matters legally.
This reason was accepted by the Tribunal, indicating there was no profit motive — an essential element for insider trading was missing. Step 3: Eliminating wrong options.
(A) Incorrect — The passage says he did not wait for a price rise, which would be expected if this was his motive.
(B) Incorrect — No mention of a compulsory shareholder agreement sale.
(C) Incorrect — No mention of buying SIL securities.
\[ \boxed{\text{D}} \]
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Question: 7

Which of the following did the court in A Rajan say was clarified in SEBI v. Kanaiyalal Baldevbhai Patel, (2017) 15 SCC 1, as regards the SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices relating to Securities Market) Regulations, 2003 (the ``FUTP Regulations'')?

Show Hint

In securities law, some regulations are ``strict liability'' — violations can occur without proving criminal intent.
Updated On: Aug 17, 2025
  • That mens rea is an indispensable requirement to attract the rigour of the FUTP Regulations
  • That mens rea is not an indispensable requirement to attract the rigour of the FUTP Regulations
  • That mens rea is not an indispensable requirement to attract the rigour of the Insider Trading Regulations
  • That mens rea is an indispensable requirement to attract the rigour of the Insider Trading Regulations
Hide Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is B

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Understanding the court’s clarification.
The court referred to the SEBI v. Kanaiyalal Baldevbhai Patel case, which clarified that under the FUTP Regulations, mens rea (criminal intent) is not a mandatory requirement for a violation. Step 2: Application to the question.
This means that even without proving intent, an act violating the FUTP Regulations can still be penalized. Step 3: Eliminating incorrect options.
(A) Incorrect — This reverses the actual clarification.
(C) and (D) Incorrect — They refer to Insider Trading Regulations, whereas the question specifically refers to FUTP Regulations.
\[ \boxed{\text{B}} \]
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Question: 8

The Insider Trading Regulations are no longer in force. Which of the following is the current set of regulations governing insider trading in India?

Show Hint

Always check for the latest amendments or replacements of regulations — insider trading in India is now governed by the 2015 regulations.
Updated On: Aug 17, 2025
  • The FUTP Regulations
  • The SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018
  • The SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015
  • The SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations 2015
Hide Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is C

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Identifying the updated regulation.
The passage specifies that the older Insider Trading Regulations have been replaced by the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015. Step 2: Eliminating incorrect options.
(A) FUTP Regulations — Deal with fraud and unfair trade, not insider trading specifically.
(B) Issue of Capital and Disclosure — Relates to public issue disclosures, not insider trading.
(D) Listing Obligations — Relates to corporate governance and disclosures, not insider trading.
\[ \boxed{\text{C}} \]
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Question: 9

What did A Rajan hold regarding the information related to the termination of the shareholders’ agreements between GIPL and SIL?

Show Hint

Price sensitive information is judged by its likely material effect on share prices, not just actual price movement.
Updated On: Aug 17, 2025
  • It was not in the respondent’s possession
  • It had no impact on the closing price of GIPL’s shares
  • It was not price sensitive information
  • It was price sensitive information
Hide Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is D

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Passage evidence.
The passage states that the closing prices of shares rose after disclosure, meaning the information was likely to materially affect share prices — fulfilling the definition of price sensitive information. Step 2: Elimination.
(A) Incorrect — He possessed the information.
(B) Incorrect — There was an impact (increase).
(C) Incorrect — The market reaction proves it was price sensitive.
\[ \boxed{\text{D}} \]
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Question: 10

In A Rajan, the court opined that a person who wanted to indulge in insider trading would have:

Show Hint

For profit-driven insider trading, timing is crucial — the trader waits for the market to react to the disclosed UPSI before acting.
Updated On: Aug 17, 2025
  • Held on to the shares, and only sold them after the news about the termination of the shareholders’ agreements with SIL was made public.
  • Sold the shares before the news about the termination of the shareholders’ agreements with SIL was made public.
  • Held on to the shares and not sold them under any circumstances.
  • Never have bought GIPL’s shares in the first place.
Hide Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is A

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Logic from the passage.
The passage states that anyone intending to profit from insider trading would wait for the positive market reaction after disclosure before selling shares. Step 2: Elimination.
(B) Incorrect — Selling before disclosure forfeits profit from the price increase.
(C) Incorrect — Selling at the right time is the key to profit; not selling at all makes no gain.
(D) Incorrect — Irrelevant to the context of timing.
\[ \boxed{\text{A}} \]
Was this answer helpful?
0
0

Questions Asked in CLAT PG exam

View More Questions