Question:
If \(A= \begin{bmatrix}1&√3&0 \\-√3&1&0 \\ 0&0&2 \end{bmatrix}\) and \(B=\begin{bmatrix}√3&1&0 \\-1&√3&0 \\ 0&0&2 \end{bmatrix}\) then AB is equal to :
If \(A= \begin{bmatrix}1&√3&0 \\-√3&1&0 \\ 0&0&2 \end{bmatrix}\) and \(B=\begin{bmatrix}√3&1&0 \\-1&√3&0 \\ 0&0&2 \end{bmatrix}\) then AB is equal to :
Updated On: Apr 19, 2024
- \(4I\)
- \(-4I\)
- \(\begin{bmatrix} 0&0&4 \\ 0&4&0 \\ -4 &0 &0 \end{bmatrix}\)
- \(\begin{bmatrix} 0&4&0\\ -4&0&0 \\ 0&0 &4 \end{bmatrix}\)
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The Correct Option is D
Solution and Explanation
The correct option is(D):\(\begin{bmatrix} 0&4&0\\ -4&0&0 \\ 0&0 &4 \end{bmatrix}\)
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