To solve this problem, we need to analyze the motion of a charged particle in a magnetic field. Let's break down the given setup:
- The magnetic field is \(\overrightarrow{B}=B_0\hat{z}\).
- The charge \(q\) is positive, and the particle mass is \(m\).
- The particle is released with velocity \(\overrightarrow{v}\) at an angle \(\theta = 45^\circ\) with respect to the z-axis.
The velocity can be resolved into components:
- \(\overrightarrow{v}_z = v \cos \theta \, \hat{z} = v \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \, \hat{z}\)
- \(\overrightarrow{v}_y = v \sin \theta \, \hat{y} = v \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \, \hat{y}\)
Using the right-hand rule for a velocity component perpendicular to the magnetic field:
- The magnetic force is given by \(\overrightarrow{F} = q (\overrightarrow{v} \times \overrightarrow{B})\).
In this setup, the z-component of velocity does not contribute to the force as it is parallel to the magnetic field. Only the y-component of velocity contributes:
- \(\overrightarrow{F} = q \left(v \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \hat{y} \times B_0 \hat{z}\right) = q v \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} B_0 (-\hat{x}) = -\frac{q v B_0}{\sqrt{2}} \hat{x}\)
The acceleration of the particle is given by:
- \(\overrightarrow{a} = \frac{\overrightarrow{F}}{m} = -\frac{q v B_0}{\sqrt{2} m} \hat{x}\)
This shows the acceleration is initially in the x-direction, matching option:
The initial acceleration \(\overrightarrow{a}=\frac{qvB_0}{\sqrt{2}m}\hat{x}\)
Conclusion: The correct answer is that the initial acceleration is \(\overrightarrow{a}=\frac{qvB_0}{\sqrt{2}m}\hat{x}\).