Question

A 28-year-old woman with a history of multiple sexual partners presents with lower abdominal pain for 1 month. She experiences minimal discharge and complaints of intermenstrual bleeding. What is the most likely cause ?

• A. Herpes simplex
• B. Genital tuberculosis
• C. Candida
• D. Neisseria gonorrhoea

Answer 1

The Correct Option is B

The clinical presentation of the 28-year-old woman described includes several key symptoms: persistent lower abdominal pain lasting for one month, minimal discharge, and intermenstrual bleeding. Considering these symptoms, let's analyze the provided options:

1. Herpes simplex: This typically presents with painful vesicular lesions and is not commonly associated with intermenstrual bleeding or lower abdominal pain of a chronic nature, making it a less likely cause.
2. Genital tuberculosis: This condition can present with chronic lower abdominal pain, scant discharge, and irregular menstruation, including intermenstrual bleeding, due to pelvic inflammatory disease involving the upper genital tract.
3. Candida: While this can cause vaginal discharge and itching, it is less often associated with chronic lower abdominal pain or intermenstrual bleeding.
4. Neisseria gonorrhoea: Gonorrhea typically causes purulent vaginal discharge and may cause abdominal pain, but chronic pain with minimal discharge and intermenstrual bleeding is better explained by other causes.

Based on the symptoms provided and the differential diagnosis, Genital tuberculosis is the most probable cause of the patient's condition due to its characteristic presentation with chronic pelvic pain and menstrual irregularities.