Question:

The value of \( \cos \left( \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{3} \right) \right) \) is equal to

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The value of \( \cos(\cos^{-1}(x)) \) is simply \( x \), as long as \( x \) is within the domain of the inverse cosine function.
Updated On: Jan 12, 2026
  • \( -\frac{3}{4} \)
  • \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • \( \frac{1}{3} \)
  • \( \frac{1}{4} \)
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The Correct Option is C

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Apply the Inverse Cosine Function.
The inverse cosine function, \( \cos^{-1} \left( \frac{1}{3} \right) \), gives an angle whose cosine is \( \frac{1}{3} \). Taking the cosine of that angle will return \( \frac{1}{3} \).
Step 2: Conclusion.
The correct answer is (C), \( \frac{1}{3} \).
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