Step 1: Understanding the Problem.
The problem deals with independent exponential random variables \( X_n \) with the mean \( \frac{1}{2} \). We need to find the probability that the event \( X_n \) satisfies certain conditions infinitely often. The notation \( i.o. \) means the event happens infinitely often as \( n \to \infty \).
Step 2: The Exponential Distribution.
For an exponential random variable with mean \( \lambda = \frac{1}{2} \), the probability density function (PDF) is given by:
\[
f(x) = 2e^{-2x}, \quad x \geq 0
\]
Thus, the cumulative distribution function (CDF) is:
\[
P(X_n \leq x) = 1 - e^{-2x}
\]
From this, we can calculate the probabilities for different conditions.
Step 3: Analyze the Options.
- (A) \( P \left( \left\{ X_n>\frac{\epsilon}{2} \log n \right\} \, i.o. \right) = 1 \text{ for } 0<\epsilon \leq 1 \): This is true because the probability \( P(X_n>x) \) for an exponential random variable decreases exponentially, and for values of \( \epsilon \leq 1 \), the event will happen infinitely often with probability 1.
- (B) \( P \left( \left\{ X_n<\frac{\epsilon}{2} \log n \right\} \, i.o. \right) = 1 \text{ for } 0<\epsilon \leq 1 \): This is also true because the probability \( P(X_n<x) \) for small \( x \) will be large enough to ensure the event happens infinitely often.
- (C) \( P \left( \left\{ X_n>\frac{\epsilon}{2} \log n \right\} \, i.o. \right) = 1 \text{ for } \epsilon>1 \): This is false because for larger values of \( \epsilon \), the probability decreases significantly, and it is not guaranteed that the event will happen infinitely often.
- (D) \( P \left( \left\{ X_n<\frac{\epsilon}{2} \log n \right\} \, i.o. \right) = 1 \text{ for } \epsilon>1 \): This is true because the probability of \( X_n \) being smaller than \( \frac{\epsilon}{2} \log n \) is high for larger \( \epsilon \), ensuring the event happens infinitely often.
Step 4: Conclusion.
Therefore, the correct options are (A), (B), and (D).